Chapter 17 — Self-Assessment Quiz
10 questions, ~20 minutes. Aim for 8/10. Each answer cites the section to revisit if you miss it.
1. An improper integral over an infinite interval is defined as: - A) The ordinary integral, with $\infty$ plugged into the antiderivative - B) The limit of proper integrals as the upper bound runs to $\infty$ - C) Always infinite - D) Always zero
Answer
B. By definition $\int_a^\infty f = \lim_{t\to\infty}\int_a^t f$. The integral converges only if that limit is finite. Section 17.1.2. Which value is correct: $\displaystyle\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x^2}\,dx$ versus $\displaystyle\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x}\,dx$? - A) Both converge to $1$ - B) The first converges to $1$; the second diverges - C) Both diverge - D) The first diverges; the second converges to $1$
Answer
B. $\int_1^t x^{-2}\,dx = 1 - 1/t \to 1$, while $\int_1^t x^{-1}\,dx = \ln t \to \infty$. A single notch in the exponent flips the verdict. Section 17.1.3. The p-integral $\displaystyle\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{x^p}\,dx$ converges if and only if: - A) $p > 0$ B) $p > 1$ C) $p < 1$ D) $p \ge 1$
Answer
B) $p > 1$. At infinity you need fast decay. The boundary case $p=1$ (the function $1/x$) diverges. Section 17.1.4. The p-integral $\displaystyle\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x^p}\,dx$ converges if and only if: - A) $p > 1$ B) $p \ge 1$ C) $p < 1$ D) $p = 1$
Answer
C) $p < 1$. This is the mirror image of the rule at infinity: near zero you need only a mild blow-up. Again $p=1$ fails. Section 17.2.5. Evaluate $\displaystyle\int_0^1 \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\,dx$. - A) Diverges B) $1$ C) $2$ D) $1/2$
Answer
C) $2$. The integrand blows up at $0$, but $p=1/2 < 1$, so the singularity is integrable: $[2\sqrt{x}]_0^1 = 2$. Section 17.2.6. A student writes $\displaystyle\int_{-1}^1 \frac{1}{x^2}\,dx = \big[-\tfrac1x\big]_{-1}^1 = -2$. The correct verdict is: - A) $-2$ B) $0$ by symmetry C) Diverges D) $2$
Answer
C) Diverges. The integrand explodes at the interior point $x=0$, so FTC does not apply. Splitting at $0$ shows each half is a p-integral at zero with $p=2 \ge 1$, which diverges. (A positive integrand could never yield $-2$ anyway.) Section 17.2.7. To show $\displaystyle\int_1^\infty \frac{1}{1+x^3}\,dx$ converges by direct comparison, the cleanest move is: - A) Compare with $1/x$, which diverges - B) Compare with $1/x^3$, which converges, since $\frac{1}{1+x^3} < \frac{1}{x^3}$ - C) Evaluate the antiderivative exactly - D) Conclude divergence because $1+x^3 > x^3$
Answer
B. For $x\ge 1$, $\frac{1}{1+x^3} < \frac{1}{x^3}$, and $\int_1^\infty x^{-3}\,dx$ converges ($p=3>1$). A smaller positive function cannot enclose more area than a convergent one. Section 17.3.8. Using limit comparison, $\displaystyle\int_1^\infty \frac{2x+1}{x^3+5}\,dx$ should be compared with $g(x)=1/x^2$ because: - A) The numerator has degree $1$ - B) Keeping leading terms gives $\frac{2x}{x^3}=\frac{2}{x^2}$, and the ratio limit is finite and positive - C) $1/x^2$ always converges - D) The integrand is even
Answer
B. Leading-term behavior is $2/x^2$; $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{(2x+1)/(x^3+5)}{1/x^2}=2$, finite and positive, so the integral shares the fate of $\int_1^\infty x^{-2}\,dx$ — it converges. Section 17.3.9. The Gamma function satisfies $\Gamma(s+1)=s\,\Gamma(s)$ and $\Gamma(1)=1$. Therefore, for a positive integer $n$, and for the famous half-integer value: - A) $\Gamma(n)=n!$ and $\Gamma(1/2)=\pi$ - B) $\Gamma(n)=(n-1)!$ and $\Gamma(1/2)=\sqrt{\pi}$ - C) $\Gamma(n)=n!$ and $\Gamma(1/2)=\sqrt{\pi}$ - D) $\Gamma(n)=(n-1)!$ and $\Gamma(1/2)=\pi$
Answer
B. The recursion plus $\Gamma(1)=1$ gives $\Gamma(n)=(n-1)!$; the substitution $x=u^2$ links $\Gamma(1/2)$ to the Gaussian integral, yielding $\sqrt{\pi}$. Section 17.4.10. The Gaussian integral $\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-x^2}\,dx = \sqrt{\pi}$ is remarkable because: - A) Its antiderivative is $\operatorname{erf}$, a simple polynomial - B) $e^{-x^2}$ has no elementary antiderivative, yet the definite integral has the exact value $\sqrt{\pi}$ (proved in Chapter 32) - C) It diverges - D) It equals $\sqrt{2\pi}$ before normalization
Answer
B. By Liouville's theorem $e^{-x^2}$ has no elementary antiderivative, so the FTC bar is useless; the value $\sqrt{\pi}$ is obtained by squaring and switching to polar coordinates (Chapter 32). This is the source of the $\sqrt{2\pi}$ normalizing the normal density. Section 17.5.Scoring
- 9–10: Excellent. You command both the evaluation machinery and the convergence tests.
- 7–8: Solid. Review any missed item's cited section.
- 5–6: Re-read Sections 17.1 and 17.2 (the two p-integral rules — the most common stumbling block) and Section 17.3 (comparison tests).
- Below 5: Slow down and rework the chapter's worked examples by hand. This material is the critical foundation for probability, statistics (Section 17.5), and the integral test for series in Chapter 22.